Re: can a language be inflecting polysynthetic?

This is a difficult question to answer because there is not, really, an
agreed definition of polysynthesis. Some people simply define
polysynthetic languages as those languages with an extremely high
morpheme to word ratio, others define it in terms of agreement (e.g. the
verb must agree with multiple arguments), and some in terms of other
features.

It also depends on what you intend inflecting to mean. In linguistics,
inflection is morphological marking of compulsory categories for a word
class. For example, in Spanish finite verbs must be marked for
tense/aspect/mood and for the person and number of the subject, so these
are inflectional categories in Spanish. On the other hand, in the world
of conlanging the term inflectional can sometimes mean, in opposition to
agglutinating languages, a language where all inflectional categories
are marked by a single, fused, affix rather than multiple affixes.

So, to answer your question:

1) There is no reason, however you define polysynthetic, that a
polysynthetic language cannot have inflectional categories. And in fact,
under most definitions of the word, inflectional categories would be
expected.
2) If, by inflection, you mean marking of all inflectional categories by
a single affix, this may be incompatible with some definitions of
polysynthesis (particularly the high morpheme to word ratio definition).

> Hi!
> Can a language be inflecting polysynthetic?
> And wich pattern is necessary to make a polysynthetic?
>
>

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