Re: Questions about Hungarian

Another question about Magyar:

Why does it preserve the 1sg (definite) ending -m, but not the Uralic
accusative ending -m?  One would think that Hungarian would have preserved
the latter if it had the former.  Final -n in Hungarian seems to have
disappeared, cf. genitive in -a/e (?).  So was the 1sg definite ending
borrowed from some other language, e.g. Turkic, after a supposed loss of
all word-final nasals?  Or did Magyar's ancestor(s) not inherit the Common
Uralic accusative ending?

Quick question: From where does the 1sg (indefinite) ending -k derive?

- Rob