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Re: Language changes, spelling reform (was Conlangea Dreaming)

From:Nik Taylor <fortytwo@...>
Date:Thursday, October 12, 2000, 23:09
Yoon Ha Lee wrote:
> I'm told that Chaucer's English (sorry--I'm not too clear on the history > of English) was, indeed, phonetic.
Not quite. It was closer than Modern English, but not completely phonemic. There were some phonemes that weren't distinguished, can't remember examples exactly, but I think /A/ and /A:/ were one?
> Chevraqis is phonetic
The Kassí syllabry is semi-morphophonemic. It cannot distinguish /tj/ from /tS/, for instance, or /ti/ from /tSi/, among other failures. It also uses diacritics for codas, and often syllabifies on morphemic, not phonemic, grounds. For example, "swords" is pifaftúi, syllabified as PIf-Af-TÚ-I (lower case indicates diacritics), because pif- is gender 7 plural prefix. Also -i (plural) is *always* written seperate, so that sukKassíi (Kassí, epecine plural) would be SU*-KA*-SÍ-I, not using the long vowel suffix. Asterisks indicate the diacritic for "following consonant geminated".