Re: Indo-European question
| From: | Nik Taylor <fortytwo@...> |
|---|
| Date: | Tuesday, June 19, 2001, 23:14 |
|---|
Lars Henrik Mathiesen wrote:
> How about if he consistently pronounced the unvoiced sound as /s/, and
> the voiced one as /T/? Some people find /s/ much easier to pronounce
> than /z/.
In Old Spanish, {z} represented /dz/, {s} represented /s/, and c/ç
represented /ts/. So, {c} was already voiceless. There never was an
/s/ -> /T/ change, it was /ts/ -> /T/, while southern dialects had /ts/
-> /s/.
--
Cenedl heb iaith, cenedl heb galon
A nation without a language is a nation without a heart - Welsh proverb
ICQ: 18656696
AIM Screen-Name: NikTaylor42
Reply