Re: Indo-European question

On Tue, Jun 19, 2001 at 07:14:15PM -0400, Nik Taylor wrote:
> Lars Henrik Mathiesen wrote:
> > How about if he consistently pronounced the unvoiced sound as /s/, and
> > the voiced one as /T/? Some people find /s/ much easier to pronounce
> > than /z/.
>
> In Old Spanish, {z} represented /dz/, {s} represented /s/, and c/ç
> represented /ts/.  So, {c} was already voiceless.  There never was an
> /s/ -> /T/ change, it was /ts/ -> /T/, while southern dialects had /ts/
> -> /s/.
Interesting. I was under the impression that the phoneme which is currently
/T/ was prior to that *dorsoalveolar* /s/, as opposed to the apicoalveolar
/s/ which persists in Spain for the letter <s>. But I guess it's impossible
to know all the intermediate forms of any sound.

--
Eric Christopherson | Rakko