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Re: Supposed Celtic semiticisms

From:Rodlox <rodlox@...>
Date:Saturday, January 29, 2005, 21:28
> > ----- Original Message ----- > > From: "Ray Brown" <ray.brown@...> > > To: <CONLANG@...> > > Sent: Friday, January 28, 2005 8:58 PM > > Subject: Re: Supposed Celtic semiticisms > > > >> The question nevertheless remains as to why these developments took
place
> >> in Ireland & Britain. > > > > coincidence? > > Yes - but that still does not explain _why_ 'Insular Celtic' developed the > way it did.
true...but coincidence might explain the one similarity between two otherwise dissimilar languages. yes?
> There are, of course, also other features shared by the > Insular Celtic langs that AFAIK have no analog in the Semitic langs -
...and thus those features would not be covered by the "coincidence" above. ===============================================
> > > On Saturday, January 29, 2005, at 01:27 , damien perrotin wrote: > > > > Skrivet gant Rodlox:
sounds painful. :)
> Ah! Rodlox's laconic reply is rather ambiguous. I understood him to be > asking if it was just a coincidence that the developments in Ireland & > Britain had parallels in the Semitic langs. But, especially with just the > bit of my mail he quoted, he could be asking if was a coincidence that the > Gaelic languages developed in a similar way to the Brittonic ones.
or to both. (to be honest, I've forgotten myself). ((wait, that was too too ambiguous)). :)