Re: Supposed Celtic semiticisms
From: | Tristan McLeay <conlang@...> |
Date: | Sunday, January 30, 2005, 14:35 |
On 30 Jan 2005, at 5.03 am, Ray Brown wrote:
> A sprachbund might explain the shift to SVO, similae development of
> def.
> article and the development of wide use of periphrastic verbs (English
> to
> quite a degree shares the latter develoment). The mutation system of
> the
> Gaelic langs is IMO different from that of the Brittonic langs (the
> latter
> are far closer to sound changes going on in western Romance).
Now you're being ambiguous (at least as I interpret 'latter'). Not
knowing what a periphrastic verb is, by 'the latter development', do
you mean the last one or the second-last one? (I would only use
'latter' to mean the second of two items, I think; or perhaps the
second-last of more than two, but normally I'd say 'second-last'. But I
have two brothers younger than me, so my younger brother is a different
person to my youngest brother...)
--
Tristan.
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