Re: Supposed Celtic semiticisms

On Sunday, January 30, 2005, at 02:35 , Tristan McLeay wrote:

> On 30 Jan 2005, at 5.03 am, Ray Brown wrote:
>
>> A sprachbund might explain the shift to SVO, similae development of
>> def.
>> article and the development of wide use of periphrastic verbs (English
>> to
>> quite a degree shares the latter develoment). The mutation system of
>> the
>> Gaelic langs is IMO different from that of the Brittonic langs (the
>> latter
>> are far closer to sound changes going on in western Romance).
>
> Now you're being ambiguous (at least as I interpret 'latter'). Not
> knowing what a periphrastic verb is,
I am going

Rydw i'n mynd
Am   I PRED going   (yn is a predicate marker)

But:
"I go" and "Af i" are not periphrastic

> by 'the latter development', do
> you mean the last one or the second-last one? (I would only use
> 'latter' to mean the second of two items, I think;
You are correct. 'Latter' constrsts with 'former' and should be used only
of two items. I lost count: I had three items - must be senior moment  :)

I should have said 'the last' or perhaps even 'the third'. I meant that
English also displays a fondness for periphrastic verbal constructs. Sorry
about the confusion.

{quote}
*periphrastic* /perI'fr&stIk/ _adj. Denoting a construction, especially
one involving a verb, in which one or more auxiliary word are used to
express grammatical distinctions, as opposed to the direct inflection of
the lexical item involved. An example is the English verb form _will be
eaten_; compare its Latin equivalent _edetur_, which involves no
periphrasis.
{/quote}
 From 'A Dictionary of Grammatical Terms in Linguistics' by Larry Trask.

Ray
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Anything is possible in the fabulous Celtic twilight,
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as of the reason."      [JRRT, "English and Welsh" ]