Re: THEORY: questions
|From:||Christophe Grandsire <christophe.grandsire@...>|
|Date:||Tuesday, March 11, 2003, 13:30|
En réponse à Jake X <starvingpoet@...>:
> Case in point: french. I don't know the history behind the "s"
> plural in the french language though. Until when was it pronounced?
About until the 16th century I'd say, although I'm not completely sure. And
it's still pronounced in liaison up to this day ;)) .
> Before the final plural s was dropped in speech could an (Old?
> French speaker leave out disambiguating articles and verbs that would
> be necessary (les/sont)?
Not really. Verbs have always been necessary in French, even to be, and have
always agreed in number and person with their subject. As for articles, in Old
French you still could have cases where a noun could appear without article,
but only when indefinite or marking a generality.
It takes a straight mind to create a twisted conlang.