From: | David Barrow <davidab@...> |
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Date: | Sunday, December 1, 2002, 18:21 |
Hi Do people make a distinction between case inflexion and case usage If a (hypothetical?) language has no noun/pronoun inflexions, but the nouns and pronouns have subject, object (direct/indirect) object of preposition, etc. uses, is this a language without case? David Barrow
Wesley Parish <wes.parish@...> |