From: | Elliott Lash <al260@...> |
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Date: | Monday, November 13, 2000, 19:53 |
Tommaso ániyë Just checked in a textbook on IE languages I have. Faliscan is given as a "Latin variant with strong 'rustic' connotations (due to Umbrian interferences)." I seem to understand that this statement is not uncontroversial, though. In all the textbooks and other types of books that I've looked at Faliscan and Latin are described as distinct languages to about the same extent as Dutch and German. Saying that Faliscan is a "Latin variant" is to the best of my knowledge a falsehood. Imagine telling a German person that there language is just a variant of Dutch or vice versa! Elliott