Re: TRANSLATION: Sabaoth (cf Steg Belsky and msgs # 130585 & prequelae)
|From:||Geoff Horswood <geoffhorswood@...>|
|Date:||Thursday, July 7, 2005, 5:46|
On Wed, 6 Jul 2005 15:53:50 -0400, Steg Belsky <draqonfayir@...> wrote:
>On Jul 5, 2005, at 12:28 PM, Tom Chappell wrote:
>> Hello, I hope this question is appropriate for this list.
>> In an answer I can no longer locate, Steg Belsky told me that he did
>> not know where the idea that '"Sabaoth" could be interpreted as
>> "Almighty"' came from.
>> WebBible.html and ChristianAnswers.net say that LXX (which I take it
>> means the Septuagint) use the Greek word meaning "Almighty" to
>> translate the Hebrew word we transliterate as "Sabaoth" whenever it is
>> used as part of God's name or title.
>I don't know enough about the Septuagint in order to evaluate that
Me neither. What I've been taught, and what is in the front of my New
International Version Bible, is that the traditional rendering of "Y___
Sabaoth" in English is "the LORD of hosts"; ie "God of the armies of
heaven" or "God of the armies of Israel", but in the more modern NIV
translation it was apparently felt that this would not be readily
understood, so they made a decision to translate as "Almighty".
I can't see the wisdom of this myself. "God of the armies of heaven" seems
perfectly understandable to me.
>> They also say that it is not always entirely clear that "Sabaoth"
>> should be translated as "of hosts"; perhaps the Septuagint was closer
>> to the mark in using "Almighty", sometimes.
>Another name, _Shadai_, is generally what's translated as "Almighty".
Yes. The NIV translates "Shaddai" as "Almighty" too, but as it's only used
a handful of times relative to "Sabaoth", they always note its occurrence
in a footnote.
Geoff, who reads the translators' notes in the front of his Bible.