Re: CHAT: Nonstandard usage (was Natural language change(wasRe:Charlie and I))
|From:||Nik Taylor <fortytwo@...>|
|Date:||Friday, October 1, 1999, 22:55|
Eric Christopherson wrote:
> I forgot about <gotta>... I'm not sure, but I think I only use that in the
> first and second persons usually, and then in a jocular sense. I would
> otherwise say <-'ve got to> or <have/has to>.
Really?! That's quite interesting, because I don't think I EVER use
"I've got to", except, perhaps, being very emphatic "I've GOT to go",
and even then I think it's probably usually "I've GOTTa go", but most
So, except in third person singular, it's only "gotta"
> Speaking of <to have got> and grammaticalization, many American children (at
> least where I live) use <got> as if it were a simple present tense verb
> synonymous with "have": I got, you got, he gots, she gots, we got, they got.
My ten-year-old (I think he's ten) cousin once asked me "Do you got any
> How do we classify <got> and <gotten> anyway? They obviously have different
> usages in American English; is it possible they are both past participles?
> Maybe <gotten> is the start of a whole new category :)
Nah, I don't think so. "Have got" is merely a lexical form which means
"have", it's synchronically no more related to the past tense "got" than
"lay" is to the past tense of "lie" (which is also "lay")
Oh Lord, grant that we may always be right, for thou knowest we will
never change our mind. - Scots Prayer
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