Re: Ergativity
From: | Thomas R. Wier <trwier@...> |
Date: | Monday, August 11, 2003, 7:05 |
Quoting Nik Taylor <yonjuuni@...>:
> But, here's my question. If a language marks nouns with S & P one way,
> and A another, but verbs agree with S & A, and S/A is an obligatory
> argument, what would you call it? It's not purely ergative, and it's
> not purely accusative. I suppose you could call it "mixed", but then in
> that case, there'd be no language on Earth that would be called
> "ergative". Ergative languages generally have at least *some*
> accusative features.
I think the question should be: does it make sense to speak of
"ergative" vs. "accusative" languages at all? Many unquestionably
'accusative' languages have ergative traits as well; a whole book
has been written on ergativity in German alone. To put it another
way, the question that we should be asking is: what causes ergativity
and accusativity to arise in languages in the distributions that
they have?
=========================================================================
Thomas Wier "I find it useful to meet my subjects personally,
Dept. of Linguistics because our secret police don't get it right
University of Chicago half the time." -- octogenarian Sheikh Zayed of
1010 E. 59th Street Abu Dhabi, to a French reporter.
Chicago, IL 60637
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