Re: Ergativity
From: | Nik Taylor <yonjuuni@...> |
Date: | Monday, August 11, 2003, 4:50 |
Chris Bates wrote:
>
> Okay, I give in... *sigh* I don't want to argue anymore lol... even
> though it makes no sense to me whatsoever I accept that people call
> languages that do that ergative. I just don't accept that it makes
> sense... I'm a mathematician, we like clear cut definitions for all our
> terms.
Well, mathematics is one of the few areas that allows for absolute,
clear-cut divisions. :-) There's just no way to divide languages
easily and uncontroversially into types. Labels are just conveniences.
Just as there's no such thing as a purely isolating, or purely fusional,
or purely agglutinating language, so there's no such thing as a purely
ergative language. It's a matter of degree. Some languages, such as
Hindi will even use ergative marking in the past tense, but accusative
marking in the present tense. :-)
But, here's my question. If a language marks nouns with S & P one way,
and A another, but verbs agree with S & A, and S/A is an obligatory
argument, what would you call it? It's not purely ergative, and it's
not purely accusative. I suppose you could call it "mixed", but then in
that case, there'd be no language on Earth that would be called
"ergative". Ergative languages generally have at least *some*
accusative features.
--
"There's no such thing as 'cool'. Everyone's just a big dork or nerd,
you just have to find people who are dorky the same way you are." -
overheard
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