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Re: Ergativity

From:Nik Taylor <yonjuuni@...>
Date:Monday, August 11, 2003, 4:50
Chris Bates wrote:
> > Okay, I give in... *sigh* I don't want to argue anymore lol... even > though it makes no sense to me whatsoever I accept that people call > languages that do that ergative. I just don't accept that it makes > sense... I'm a mathematician, we like clear cut definitions for all our > terms.
Well, mathematics is one of the few areas that allows for absolute, clear-cut divisions. :-) There's just no way to divide languages easily and uncontroversially into types. Labels are just conveniences. Just as there's no such thing as a purely isolating, or purely fusional, or purely agglutinating language, so there's no such thing as a purely ergative language. It's a matter of degree. Some languages, such as Hindi will even use ergative marking in the past tense, but accusative marking in the present tense. :-) But, here's my question. If a language marks nouns with S & P one way, and A another, but verbs agree with S & A, and S/A is an obligatory argument, what would you call it? It's not purely ergative, and it's not purely accusative. I suppose you could call it "mixed", but then in that case, there'd be no language on Earth that would be called "ergative". Ergative languages generally have at least *some* accusative features. -- "There's no such thing as 'cool'. Everyone's just a big dork or nerd, you just have to find people who are dorky the same way you are." - overheard ICQ: 18656696 AIM Screen-Name: NikTaylor42

Replies

Thomas R. Wier <trwier@...>
Joe <joe@...>
Andreas Johansson <andjo@...>