Re: Spoken Thoughts ( My second, better formed, non crappy Language)

> > First off, I want to ask a few questions:
> >
> > Could there be a verb in the Subjunctive Imperetive form?
> >
> > What other forms of the verb are there [ besides Subjunctive ( the
> > wishing
> > case, I believe ), Imperetive, and the tenses ( past, present, future,
> > past
> > perfect, future perfect ) ]?
> >
>
>Well, I think you're mixing things here. Verb forms belong to categories,
>in
>which the forms are mutually exclusive. Mostly three categories of verb
>forms
>are recognized universally (even if some languages sometimes lack one or
>the
>other, or put them on other types of words): Mood, Tense and Aspect. You
>can
>also add the category of Person for languages where verbs agree in person
>with
>their subject.
>
>The Tense category describes the absolute location in time of the action
>(typically past, present and future, even if some languages have more than
>one
>degree in past and/or in future). The Aspect category describes more a
>relative
>relation with time, that's to say whether the action is completed
>(perfect),
>ongoing (progressive), punctual (aorist), still to be done (prospective),
>etc...
>Finally, the Mood category describes the more the opinion of the speaker
>about
>the action, whether it is simply described (indicative), seen subjectively
>(subjunctive), wished (optative), ordered (imperative), wanted
>(desiderative),
>hypothetical (conditional), mandatory, possible, probable, etc...
>
>Inside a category, the forms are mutually exclusive: you cannot have a verb
>at
>the same in present and in past. So your question about a subjunctive
>imperative
>form is answered: it is not possible because subjunctive and imperative are
>both
>moods, and thus cannot appear together in the same verb (in fact, there ar
>even
>languages that express order through the subjunctive mood). On the other
>hand,
>you can make as many combinations of forms of the three categories as you
>want
>(even if languages don't always have all: French has a subjunctive past,
>but not
>English, Greek had indicative, subjunctive and optative, while Latin had
>only
>indicative and subjunctive). That's why in English you can have past
>perfect,
>present perfect and future perfect (all of the indicative mood). In written
>French we have the past simple (which is a past aorist) as well as the
>imperfect
>(which is really a past progressive). Portuguese opposes an indicative
>future
>with a subjunctive future, and Classicial Latin had an imperative present
>but
>also an imperative future!
>
>As for verb forms in English, you can count all those made through the
>so-called
>modals (you counted the future which is expressed in English by will+verb,
>so
>why not the others?) which correspond to different moods (would for the
>conditional for instance).
I see, thank you for clarifying that.  I will go and revise me verb grammar
part thingy...


> > I have an intransitive prefix/suffix that makes the verb intransitive.
> >
>
>Is it an affix which would allow to say "I eat-affix" instead of "I eat
>it", or
>a passivizer affix making "It eat-affix": "It is eaten" from "I eat it"? I
>mean,
>what's the meaning of the intransitive verb derived from a transitive verb
>in
>this way?
What I mean is that you would add Aa- to the beginning ( or a similar
prefix, depending on the first character of the word )to a verb that is
transitive, to get a verb that would go into an intransitive sentance.

"I hate food" would not constitute as an intransitive sentance, but "The dog
is big" would constitute one.

If I wanted to use a verb that wasn't originally intransitive ( or was
either intran. or tran. ), I would add Aa- to it and use it in the sentance.

Most verbs are originally transitive in my language ( save a few ), so this
prefix would be necessary for "eat" if I didn't create another word for the
intransitive version...

Hope that answere's your question.
Hantale,
Eruanno
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