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Re: New Orthography for slaleg ekryn

From:JS Bangs <jaspax@...>
Date:Tuesday, June 17, 2003, 19:03
Matt Trinsic sikyal:

> The vowels are a bit more complicated. There are only six of them, but > they each have two phonemes. All noun words use one set of phonemes, > while all verb words use the other set. Their <orthography> and /noun > phonemes/ /vowel phonemes/ are: > <u> /@`/ /3`/, <y> /i/ /e/, <i> /aI/ /V/, <o> /u/ /o/, <e> /I/ /E/, > <a> /{/ /O/
I think I understand what you mean here, but this is not how I would explain it. The statement "they each have two phonemes" makes no sense. What you seem to be saying is that there is an alternation between the vowel phones found in verbs and those found in derived nouns, e.g. we have the noun [flIt] and the verb [flEt], but these are variations of the same morphophonemic word /flIt/. (I'm choose a symbol at random, here.) Do *all* verbs and nouns have this division. Can a verb *never* have the phone [I]? If so, I know of no natlang that has such a system, but it's an interestic analytical problem. Jesse S. Bangs Jesus asked them, "Who do you say that I am?" And they answered, "You are the eschatological manifestation of the ground of our being, the kerygma in which we find the ultimate meaning of our interpersonal relationship." And Jesus said, "What?"


Thomas R. Wier <trwier@...>