Re: USAGE: (Mis)Naming a Language
| From: | Carsten Becker <naranoieati@...> |
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| Date: | Thursday, October 28, 2004, 18:36 |
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On Thu, 28 Oct 2004 17:52:30 -0000, caeruleancentaur
<caeruleancentaur@...> wrote:
>I believe that Carsten is basing his supposition on the American
>practice of voicing intervocal voiceless consonants, e.g., latter
>=ladder. But in this case there is no intervocal voicing since there
>are not two vowels involved. There is the /{/, but there is no /I/.
I based my assumptions on that indeed. OMG, now it's my turn at breaking
lose YAEPT :-S
Carsten