Unconditioned phonetic change? (was: comment please...)
|From:||P. M. Arktayg <pmva@...>|
|Date:||Sunday, September 22, 2002, 18:57|
John Cowan ta nugatu-r:
> Ah, so it's you who doesn't believe in unconditioned phonemic splits
> (and all the time I was attributing this to Mark Line).
> How then do you explain the French split that led to "franc,ais" on
> the one hand, and "danois" on the other? Randomly, certain words with
> the suffix /E/ became /wE/ > /wA/. Verbal endings consistently
> remained /E/, but in other cases there is no trace of explanation
> for the split.
What is your opinion in that matter, John? I mean, what is the reason of
such a phonetic change? A frequency? An analogy? Something else?
/\ P. M. Arktayg pmva[at]avenned.com /\
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