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Unconditioned phonetic change? (was: comment please...)

From:P. M. Arktayg <pmva@...>
Date:Sunday, September 22, 2002, 18:57
John Cowan ta nugatu-r:


> Ah, so it's you who doesn't believe in unconditioned phonemic splits > (and all the time I was attributing this to Mark Line).
> How then do you explain the French split that led to "franc,ais" on > the one hand, and "danois" on the other? Randomly, certain words with > the suffix /E/ became /wE/ > /wA/. Verbal endings consistently > remained /E/, but in other cases there is no trace of explanation > for the split.
What is your opinion in that matter, John? I mean, what is the reason of such a phonetic change? A frequency? An analogy? Something else? -- /\ P. M. Arktayg pmva[at] /\ \/ "rubba s.idqin ka:na ?akd_aba min kid_bin" \/ \/\/ 'często prawda jest bardziej kłamliwa niż kłamstwo' \/\/


And Rosta <a.rosta@...>
John Cowan <jcowan@...>