Re: Unconditioned phonetic change? (was: comment please...)

My first hypothesis in such cases would be dialect mixture.

--And.

> John Cowan ta nugatu-r:
>
> [...]
>
> > Ah, so it's you who doesn't believe in unconditioned phonemic splits
> > (and all the time I was attributing this to Mark Line).
>
> > How then do you explain the French split that led to "franc,ais" on
> > the one hand, and "danois" on the other?  Randomly, certain words with
> > the suffix /E/ became /wE/ > /wA/.  Verbal endings consistently
> > remained /E/, but in other cases there is no trace of explanation
> > for the split.
>
> What is your opinion in that matter, John? I mean, what is the reason of
> such a phonetic change? A frequency? An analogy? Something else?
>
> --
>
>  /\   P. M. Arktayg                   pmva[at]avenned.com   /\
>  \/       "rubba s.idqin ka:na ?akd_aba min kid_bin"        \/
> \/\/  'często prawda jest bardziej kłamliwa niż kłamstwo'  \/\/
>
>
>