Re: Here we go loup-garou

In the last episode, (On Tuesday 10 July 2007 10:24:44), Philip Newton wrote:
> On 7/10/07, Dirk Elzinga <dirk.elzinga@...> wrote:
> > It is often the case that languages with a voicing distinction in the
> > obstruents will still fail to have /g/ as a counterpart to /k/, so the
> > lack of /g/ should be okay. By the same token, you can miss /p/ but
> > still have /b/. (This has to do with the aerodynamics of voicing.)
>
> See e.g. Arabic, which exhibits both of these lacks.
>
> (At least MSA, AFAIK; Egyptian has [g] from MSA /dZ/ and others have
> it from /q/.)
>
> Cheers,
I know there are languages which don't have voiced consonants, like Finnish
(except approximants, which appear to be always voiced; from loans; and /d/,
which is regarded as somewhat artificial and replaced by various phonemes in
non-standard dialects), but are there any languages which have voiced
consonants but no voiced ones at all?

Jeff
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