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Re: Here we go loup-garou

From:Jeff Rollin <jeff.rollin@...>
Date:Tuesday, July 10, 2007, 11:57
In the last episode, (On Tuesday 10 July 2007 10:24:44), Philip Newton wrote:
> On 7/10/07, Dirk Elzinga <dirk.elzinga@...> wrote: > > It is often the case that languages with a voicing distinction in the > > obstruents will still fail to have /g/ as a counterpart to /k/, so the > > lack of /g/ should be okay. By the same token, you can miss /p/ but > > still have /b/. (This has to do with the aerodynamics of voicing.) > > See e.g. Arabic, which exhibits both of these lacks. > > (At least MSA, AFAIK; Egyptian has [g] from MSA /dZ/ and others have > it from /q/.) > > Cheers,
I know there are languages which don't have voiced consonants, like Finnish (except approximants, which appear to be always voiced; from loans; and /d/, which is regarded as somewhat artificial and replaced by various phonemes in non-standard dialects), but are there any languages which have voiced consonants but no voiced ones at all? Jeff -- "Please understand that there are small European principalities devoted to debating Tcl vs. Perl as a tourist attraction." -- Cameron Laird

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T. A. McLeay <conlang@...>