Re: Here we go loup-garou

On 7/10/07, Dirk Elzinga <dirk.elzinga@...> wrote:
> It is often the case that languages with a voicing distinction in the
> obstruents will still fail to have /g/ as a counterpart to /k/, so the
> lack of /g/ should be okay. By the same token, you can miss /p/ but
> still have /b/. (This has to do with the aerodynamics of voicing.)
See e.g. Arabic, which exhibits both of these lacks.

(At least MSA, AFAIK; Egyptian has [g] from MSA /dZ/ and others have
it from /q/.)

Cheers,
--
Philip Newton <philip.newton@...>

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