On Friday, December 12, 2003, at 03:30 PM, Adam Walker wrote:
> Can anyone explain the origin of this phrase to me?
> My Spanish etymological dict tells me that res
> nata/rem natam is the source of the Spanish "nada"
> (and thus, I would assume, the Portugese "nada")
res nata = a born thing.
'nata' is past part. of 'nasci' (to be born), and is feminine
in agreement with 'res'.
It derives from its use in negative sentences:
non habeo rem = I haven't got a thing, i.e. I've got nothing
It was natural (as it still is) to strengthen 'rem' with some
adjective - no doubt no always polite :)
Apparently a favorite form in the Latin of the iberian peninsular was:
non habeo rem natam = I haven't got a born thing!
'rem nata' comes to aquire the negative meaning, the 're(m)' gets dropped
and hence we finish up with 'nada'
> and
> the French "rien" (and I assume the Catalan "res"),
Nope - the French is just plain ol' "rem" (Vulgar Latin *rEn);
presumably the Catalan is from the Latin plural 'res'
(i.e. non habeo res = I don't have things - I've got nothing)
> But I can't figure out where the "nata" part comes
> from.
See above.
> It can't be na:ta/gna:ta which means "daughter"
> can it?
Quite right - tho the Latin is simply the feminine part.
'nata' used as a noun - but this usage is essentially poetic;
the normal Latin for daughter is 'filia'.
> Is it a form of the verb nato:?
= i swim - Nope!
> Is it
> related to birth? or fish? or buttocks?
Fish? Not buttocks (nates) - but ultimately 'birth', see above.
> Also, what is the source of the Italian/Sicilian
> niente/nente
Trying had to remember - Is it from *ne ente9m) (not a being)??
> and the Romanian nimic?
That I would also like to know.
Ray
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