Re: The Shift of Antecedent Prepositions to Suffixes ????

In a message dated 1/22/2005 12:40:27 PM Eastern Standard Time,
Bitemeagain_walker@HOTMAIL.COM writes:

>Would I be then right in assuming that it's only a small step from an
>affixed 'postposition' to a rudementary case inflection - i.e. the
>postpositional '-or' of *maror may broaden in meaning,
>thereby 'swallowing' a number of other synonymic postpositions (e.g. in,
>into, inside, etc.) and come eventually to mark a general locative or
>positional case? The rough reverse of Latin (cases) > French (caseless)?
>Any examples?
I think it is generally agreed that postpositions are a major source of case
inflections.  I read somewhere that this process is visible in written records
of Hungarian.  No doubt someone else here will have details.