Re: The Shift of Antecedent Prepositions to Suffixes ????

Would I be then right in assuming that it's only a small step from an
affixed 'postposition' to a rudementary case inflection - i.e. the
postpositional '-or' of *maror may broaden in meaning,
thereby 'swallowing' a number of other synonymic postpositions (e.g. in,
into, inside, etc.) and come eventually to mark a general locative or
positional case? The rough reverse of Latin (cases) > French (caseless)?
Any examples?