Re: OT: Two language change questions

On Mon, 20 Oct 2008, David McCann wrote:
> On Sun, 2008-10-19 at 00:57 -0500, Reic Christopherson wrote:
>
> > 1. Does it ever happen that a language which differentiates definite
> > and indefinite (e.g. by articles) loses that distinction?
> >
> I seem to recall that Joseph Greenberg published a study on that, though
> I haven't read it.
>
> Words go through a cycle:
> 1. demonstrative
> 2. definite article
> 3. definite article, also used where than can be no definite/indefinite
contrast
> 4. noun marker, only excluded from certain constructions
> 5. universal noun marker.
>
> My notes refer to Palestinian Syriac being at stage 3, Babylonian Syriac
> and modern Western Aramaic progressing to stage 4, and modern Eastern
> Syriac to stage 5. English is still at stage 2, French at 3 (e.g. use
> with mass and abstract nouns). French creoles generally go through stage
> 5 -- /lete/ summer, /dife/ fire, Mauritian /lašu/ cabbage -- and then on
> to 3: Seychellois /sat la/ the cat.
Hi, David.

Do please clarify a few things for me in this most interesting pattern!

Q1.    In what sense are these "stages" if 5 (as well as 2) can precede 3?

Q2.    Please flesh out the meaning of these stages.  Eg -
        Q2a.    Does "demonstrative" mean a "demonstrative adjective"?

        Q2b.    Does "definite article" in stage 2 imply the existence of
an "indefinite article"; or perhaps only of a definiteness contrast, in
which
the definite state is marked by the presence of the definite particle?

        Q2c.    What is a "noun marker" - a morpheme, inflection, clitic
...?

        Q2d.    Is there any known example of a living language currently
_in
transition_ between two (or more) of these stages?

Thanks!

In hope,
Yahya

Yahya Abdal-Aziz
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