Re: OT: Two language change questions
| From: | David McCann <david@...> |
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| Date: | Monday, October 20, 2008, 15:30 |
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On Sun, 2008-10-19 at 00:57 -0500, Reic Christopherson wrote:
> 1. Does it ever happen that a language which differentiates definite
> and indefinite (e.g. by articles) loses that distinction?
>
I seem to recall that Joseph Greenberg published a study on that, though
I haven't read it.
Words go through a cycle:
1. demonstrative
2. definite article
3. definite article, also used where than can be no definite/indefinite
contrast
4. noun marker, only excluded from certain constructions
5. universal noun marker.
My notes refer to Palestinian Syriac being at stage 3, Babylonian Syriac
and modern Western Aramaic progressing to stage 4, and modern Eastern
Syriac to stage 5. English is still at stage 2, French at 3 (e.g. use
with mass and abstract nouns). French creoles generally go through stage
5 -- /lete/ summer, /dife/ fire, Mauritian /lašu/ cabbage -- and then on
to 3: Seychellois /sat la/ the cat.