Re: OT: Two language change questions
From: | Matthew Turnbull <ave.jor@...> |
Date: | Sunday, October 19, 2008, 17:22 |
how do you figure? I mean they are used a lot, but what evidence is there
for this (not necessarily that I disagree, but there are still indefinite
articles, does that mean they will go away?)
On Sun, Oct 19, 2008 at 11:18 AM, Benct Philip Jonsson <bpj@...>wrote:
> On 2008-10-19 Eric Christopherson wrote:
>
>> However, I am having trouble imagining the gradual steps involved in the
>> loss of the distinction. I know that sometimes English uses the definite
>> article to refer to things which aren't all that definite, especially in
>> idioms (but then again, they're idioms!), so I can sort of imagine it, but
>> not quite.
>>
>>
> The French articles are well underway to become
> number and gender markers instead of definiteness
> markers.
>
> /BP
>