Re: Arabic Questions

J. wrote:

<<I understand that [j] and [w] are the same as [i_^] and [u_^] (so that [j]
will have a slight friction since [i] has some friction). So you're saying
that [?\] is the same as [A_^]? That's interesting and matches quite well
what my ears have perceived.>>

This is what I was taught in phonetics.

<<Voiceless glottal? I think this was about voiced pharyngeal. ??>>

Someone had said that *my* description was that of a voiced [h], or [h\].
I was trying to show that it wasn't, and conjecturing about how one might
have come to that conclusion.

<<Maybe your misunderstanding is based on you two having different notions of
the open back unrounded vowel [A], that is, Christian might think of it
having in mind the Züritüütsch example, while David might think of it
having in mind the English example. I'm not accusing anyone of being
unaware that the IPA/X-SAMPA/CXS vowels are intended to be describe
absolute qualities, but I just think we can't help being conditioned by our
native languages.>>

I don't follow.   Can you explain more?   :)

-David
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"sunly eleSkarez ygralleryf ydZZixelje je ox2mejze."
"No eternal reward will forgive us now for wasting the dawn."

-Jim Morrison

http://dedalvs.free.fr/