Re: Phonological terminology question
| From: | Tristan <kesuari@...> |
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| Date: | Tuesday, February 18, 2003, 4:15 |
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On Tue, 2003-02-18 at 12:54, Danny Wier wrote:
> Not only Semitic languages have the pharyngeal consonants, but other
> non-Semitic languages in the Afrasian language/phylum: Egyptian (but not
> Coptic)...
How can we know (or even suspect) that Egyptian had pharyngeal
consonants yet we can't guess at the vowels and pretend they're /e/ or
null, when it's descendant doesn't have pharyngeals but does have
vowels? (or at least, I'm hoping it does ;) )
Tristan.
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