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Re: (In)transitive verbs

From:Costentin Cornomorus <elemtilas@...>
Date:Wednesday, February 11, 2004, 0:06
--- "Douglas Koller, Latin & French"
<latinfrench@...> wrote:
> >--- "Mark J. Reed" <markjreed@...> wrote: > > > >> The distinction itself is straightforward: > if > >> the verb takes an > >> object, it's transitive; if not, it's > >> intransitive. English just > >> doesn't *make* that distinction sharply; > most > >> verbs can be either. > > > >Specifically, English doesn't _mark_ the > >distinction. We make it, as you described > above, > >just don't make a big deal out of it. > > Well, we have a *handful* that make the > distinction. The two that > readily come to mind are: > > fall vs. fell
Yes, that's true. Though most people have no clue that "fell" is a verb on its own. Most people say "they _cut down_ the tree".
> lie vs. lay
Another confusing verb! I personally try to avoid that pair whenever I can, because I confuse them. Padraic. ===== kâsu ñomklyu tsrasi&#347;&#347;i &#347;äk kälymentwam! -- Punyavantajâtaka -- Ill Bethisad -- <http://www.geocities.com/elemtilas/ill_bethisad> Come visit The World! -- <http://www.geocities.com/hawessos/> .

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Mark J. Reed <markjreed@...>