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Re: Question about anaphora

From:Markus Miekk-oja <fam.miekk-oja@...>
Date:Sunday, June 1, 2003, 10:57
> (Den/det/de refers to subject, > denna/detta/dessa refers > back > >to the last noun). > > Then did "de" come from a previous form "des"? Or was that > "ss" inserted > for clarity and to sound like the others?
I doubt that "de" ever's been "des". My dialect has the same /tey/ that English borrowed from Norse. I guess that's been the pronoun in the dialects that were the basis for standard Swedish too, but those dialects went through a dediphtongization process so "stein" became "sten", etc. Probably, tey has gone through the same process and ended up as de.
>Hm, just to clarify: _de_ is pronounced [dOm], at least in Sweden. I'll
let those with more grounding than me in _nordiska språkhistoria_ explain the discrepancy. In some parts of sweden it's pronounced /tei/, /tej/, /tey/, or different versions on that (I even occasionally get in a [T] there...especially if the previous word ends in a labial). Most people when reading aloud read _de_ as [dOm]. Me, I'm trying to use [dOm] as accusative, and dem as dative, (since no one notices).

Reply

Pavel Iosad <edricson@...>_de_ i svenska (var Question about anaphora)