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Re: Question about anaphora

From:Harald Stoiber <stoiberh@...>
Date:Saturday, May 31, 2003, 21:28
>"obviative" suffix. You can then have pronouns (or verb endings) that indicate >whether the antecedent (or subject) was proximate or obviative.
Hm... looks like some kind of backwards-counting concept. The proximate pronoun would then be used for the last antecedent and the obviative for the last but one antecedent? Or is it a spatial near vs. far distinction? Harald

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Roger Mills <romilly@...>