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Re: Introducing myself to the list

From:Thomas R. Wier <artabanos@...>
Date:Monday, June 19, 2000, 20:06
John Cowan wrote:

> Which neatly accounts for why b- hardly exists in classical PIE, contrary to > all normal evidence which says that if you lack one of p- or b-, it's p- you lack > (Arabic, e.g.). Having p'- be rare doesn't violate any norm I know of.
No, it's in fact somewhat odd to find it in phonological inventories. Of all the languages that have a glottalic series of stop consonans, only about a third of them have /p'/, while virtually all of that same category have /t'/ and /k'/. That's rather striking considering how unmarked labials usually are. A lot of the arguing going on in the PIE community about PIE's obstruent series seems to center around whether to admit typological evidence like that. ====================================== Tom Wier <artabanos@...> ICQ#: 4315704 AIM: trwier "Cogito ergo sum, sed credo ergo ero." ======================================