Re: "Roumant", or whatever it may be called. Part V

Óskar ániyë:
radical + e (like volle /vOl/: to want),

You're kidding!? Isn't that way arcane? I mean, wasn't that 'volére' back in
VL? Does 'esse' exist at all in Roumant?

When I read this I was a little shocked
as well. Why would Roumant keep a form
such as this seemingly without any other
analogous forms. And anyway how did
it become volle when the Latin was velle?
I really like the form but it just doesn't seem
at all plausible.

Negation sounds interesting to me. You could tell me BTW, about why 'non'
doesn't feature as a negating adverb in French, but only 'ne', the archaic
Indo-European word.

Actually from what I've read
"ne" isn't direclty from the Indo-European
(an imposibility in fact), but instead its
just a weakened form of "non" which came
about in the Gallo-Romance period. The Latin
"non" became Gallo-Romance "non" then Early
Old French "nen" then became "ne" with loss of
the nasalization in an unstressed syllable, an
isolated change to be sure, but probably a real
change none the less.

Elliott.