Re: Spanish/English <ch>
| From: | Eric Christopherson <rakko@...> |
|---|
| Date: | Monday, April 23, 2001, 0:13 |
|---|
> > In a message dated 4/6/01 10:30:56 PM, alrivera@SOUTHERN.EDU writes:
> >
> > << That's because Spanish <ch> isn't /tS/ as it is in English. It's more
> > palatal, and doesn't have the /t/ in it at all--English /S/ really is the
> > closest thing to Spanish /cC/. >>
My Spanish professor from last year (who uses what I am told is a
near-perfect Madrid accent) pronounces it almost like [jt`_s`] (palatal
glide followed by retroflex affricate, or perhaps more accurately
pre-palatalized retroflex affricate). I don't know if that's really
characteristic of Madrid or Castille, but it certainly sounded strange when
I first used it. I'm quite fond of it now though, and will probably make it
an allophone of /jt/ in some dialect of Lainesco.
--
Eric Christopherson / *Aiworegs Ghristobhorosyo