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Re: Spanish/English <ch>

From:Eric Christopherson <rakko@...>
Date:Monday, April 23, 2001, 0:13
> > In a message dated 4/6/01 10:30:56 PM, alrivera@SOUTHERN.EDU writes: > > > > << That's because Spanish <ch> isn't /tS/ as it is in English. It's more > > palatal, and doesn't have the /t/ in it at all--English /S/ really is the > > closest thing to Spanish /cC/. >>
My Spanish professor from last year (who uses what I am told is a near-perfect Madrid accent) pronounces it almost like [jt`_s`] (palatal glide followed by retroflex affricate, or perhaps more accurately pre-palatalized retroflex affricate). I don't know if that's really characteristic of Madrid or Castille, but it certainly sounded strange when I first used it. I'm quite fond of it now though, and will probably make it an allophone of /jt/ in some dialect of Lainesco. -- Eric Christopherson / *Aiworegs Ghristobhorosyo