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Spanish/English <ch>

From:Muke Tever <alrivera@...>
Date:Sunday, April 8, 2001, 5:00
> From: David Peterson <DigitalScream@...> > Subject: Re: CONLANG Digest (#2001-97) > > In a message dated 4/6/01 10:30:56 PM, alrivera@SOUTHERN.EDU writes: > > << That's because Spanish <ch> isn't /tS/ as it is in English. It's more > palatal, and doesn't have the /t/ in it at all--English /S/ really is the > closest thing to Spanish /cC/. >> > > I don't think so. I don't think so at all. At most, you can say that
the=20
> English [tS] has a longer delay before the release, slightly. But
they're=20
> definitely the same sound, where I'm from.
I'm pretty sure that in my own idiolect English <ch> and Spanish <ch> are different sounds. (However, I don't see any reason why this should be so. It may just be the accentuation, where in an American accent sounds like that have a tendency to go retroflex?) *Muke! -- http://www.southern.edu/~alrivera/

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Eric Christopherson <rakko@...>