|From:||Muke Tever <alrivera@...>|
|Date:||Sunday, April 8, 2001, 5:00|
> From: David Peterson <DigitalScream@...>
> Subject: Re: CONLANG Digest (#2001-97)
> In a message dated 4/6/01 10:30:56 PM, alrivera@SOUTHERN.EDU writes:
> << That's because Spanish <ch> isn't /tS/ as it is in English. It's more
> palatal, and doesn't have the /t/ in it at all--English /S/ really is the
> closest thing to Spanish /cC/. >>
> I don't think so. I don't think so at all. At most, you can say thatthe=20
> English [tS] has a longer delay before the release, slightly. Butthey're=20
> definitely the same sound, where I'm from.
I'm pretty sure that in my own idiolect English <ch> and Spanish <ch> are
different sounds. (However, I don't see any reason why this should be so.
It may just be the accentuation, where in an American accent sounds like
that have a tendency to go retroflex?)