Re: Spanish/English <ch>
| From: | David Peterson <digitalscream@...> |
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| Date: | Sunday, April 8, 2001, 7:24 |
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In a message dated 4/7/01 10:01:35 PM, alrivera@SOUTHERN.EDU writes:
<< I'm pretty sure that in my own idiolect English <ch> and Spanish <ch> are
different sounds. (However, I don't see any reason why this should be so.
It may just be the accentuation, where in an American accent sounds like
that have a tendency to go retroflex?) >>
OH NO!!! I forgot about that! I forgot about all those awful (I didn't use
that word) retroflex sounds some Americans use. (For those who watch the
Simpsons, reference Reverend Lovejoy's pronunciation of "church".) No, I
definitely have few retroflex sounds. I consciously try to toss those things
out of my language, though it's hard to get rid of that retroflex flap in
words like "mortar", "boarder", "quarter", et cetera. Okay. Now I see.
Good to clear that up.
-David