Re: Request for help, Spanish

R. Nierse escribio:

> As far as I know the Mexican way is the most straightforward one: {ll}
> being IPA lambda and {y} being {y}. In the Andes {ll} has become [Z] an=
d
> the Indian languages have taking this over (_llacta_ 'village' is
> pronounced as [Zacta] in Ecuador).
> Pablo can confirm this for Plate=F1o too I think.
Mostly in Colombia the pronunciation is [j\] for both {y} and {ll} with s=
ome
local variants.  I don't think that [L] (IPA inverse y: palatal lateral
approximant) is used in Mexico but is still used in regions like Nari=F1o=
,
Colombia, in the border with Ecuador.  If i remember correctly Quecha has
actually [L] and this help preserve that sound in regions of Per=FA, Ecua=
dor,
Bolivia and Suthern Colombia.

The distinction between {y} as [j\] and {ll} as [Z] is common in the Pais=
a
dialect (from Medell=EDn, Colombia).  In Bogot=E1 and I guess in the whol=
e
Mexico, both {y} and {ll} are pronounced alike.  If the actual sound is [=
j],
[j\], [Z], [dZ], [d_jj\] or whatever I can't be for sure, but I think it
gravitated between an affricate at the begining of a word and a fricative=
 in
intervowel positions.

-- Carlos Th