Re: Marking nouns with person?

Hi!

Chris Bates <chris.maths_student@...> writes:
> >I just cited you. :-)
> >
> >Do you happen to know whether the person marking on nouns is an
> >anadewism?  I'd also like to know.
> >
> I thought I'd heart of a language that did it, but when I searched a
> month or two ago I failed to find anything on it really. I believe
> several linguistic theories claims it's something no natlang would
> ever do, but that's not saying much.
Really?  It would be interesting it see the arguments for that, since
I find it quite sensible to have person marking on nouns.  Some kind
of apposition for every noun.  Appositions to pronouns are quite
common and in no way strange, no?

Does your language mark person on names, too?  Would be nice?

**I, Henrik, a conlanger