From: | Chris Bates <chris.maths_student@...> |
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Date: | Thursday, September 1, 2005, 16:46 |
>I just cited you. :-) > >Do you happen to know whether the person marking on nouns is an >anadewism? I'd also like to know. > >I thought I'd heart of a language that did it, but when I searched a month or two ago I failed to find anything on it really. I believe several linguistic theories claims it's something no natlang would ever do, but that's not saying much.
Henrik Theiling <theiling@...> |