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Re: Marking nouns with person?

From:tomhchappell <tomhchappell@...>
Date:Friday, September 2, 2005, 22:02
--- In conlang@yahoogroups.com, Chris Bates
<chris.maths_student@N...> wrote:
> > > >Hi. > >I just finished Anna Siewierska's "Person", and I think I can > >summarize what that book had to say about this question in re > >natlangs. > > > > > Cool. I've skimmed through that book, but unfortunately I don't own
it. I don't either. I had to give it back.
> > >In other words: > >In NatLangs, diachronically, > >it is far more common for a person-marked pronoun to be lost, > >and replaced by a 3rd-person noun, > >than for a noun to become marked with person. > > > > > What basically happened in my conlang is that 3rd person pronouns > started being used as a kind of article on nouns to mark gender
(there
> is a gender system). This is kindof important because the language
was
> developing verbal agreement which included gender and there is no
case
> system, so... but anyway, this has happened in some natlangs so I
don't
> think there's really a problem. But I didn't think it was too much
of a
> stretch to also include in the system markers for 1st and 2nd
person
> referrents also, given that 3rd person pronouns started being > consistently used with nouns. So the motivation for the system was
more
> or less gender marking, and the person agreement was just an
accidental
> extention to the system.
Sounds plausible to me. Anyway, as you can see from the many posts about Elamite and a few about Nahuatl, in spite of the clear [and unassailable] logic of [Siewierska's] accessibility-based argument that this kind of thing should be rare in natlangs, it does in fact happen. [words in square brackets above are those which Siewierska might not agree with.] Tom H.C. in MI