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Re: Swedish alphabet [was: Re: Spanish alphabet]

From:Daniel Andreasson <noldo@...>
Date:Sunday, September 26, 1999, 23:22
Tom Wier wrote:

> AFAIK, no German state, up to and including the semblance of > a state we call the Holy Roman Empire, ever controlled portions > of what is now Sweden. The reverse was true, however, during > the period of the Wars of Reformation and Counterreformation, > especially during the 30 Years' War : bits of German near Hanover and > Western Pomerania were at various times controlled by Sweden.
You've done your homework, it seems. (And better than me, too ;) AKAIK too, that is correct.
> I think it's just more likely that individuals moved elsewhere, =
settled
> down, and were literate enough to retain their old family names, much > as most people in the United States and Canada today continue to > do so today.
That seems likely. Not to mention that {w} looks a bit more classy than {v}. I think many people changed to {w} to make it look more german (during one of our german influenced periods).
> Also, don't forget that the very idea of standardized spellings is a > relatively recent phenomenon. The English, e.g., didn't really have =
any
> conception of "standard" English until around the mid to late 18th > century,=20
And when they finally decide, they choose the 14th century way of spelling? Way to go... But I guess we don't have to go there again...
> and so there's no particular reason to expect the Swedes > to be particularly any more enlightened on that matter. :)
Hey, watch that mouth, mister! The Swedes are the most enlightened people in the whole world! The whole world I tell ya!!! :D Sorry 'bout that, it's kinda late, and I have a cold... Daniel Andreasson