Re: Swedish alphabet [was: Re: Spanish alphabet]

Tom Wier wrote:

> AFAIK, no German state, up to and including the semblance of
> a state we call the Holy Roman Empire, ever controlled portions
> of what is now Sweden.  The reverse was true, however, during
> the period of the Wars of Reformation and Counterreformation,
> especially during the 30 Years' War : bits of German near Hanover and
> Western Pomerania were at various times controlled by Sweden.
You've done your homework, it seems. (And better than me, too ;)
AKAIK too, that is correct.

> I think it's just more likely that individuals moved elsewhere, =
settled
> down, and were literate enough to retain their old family names, much
> as most people in the United States and Canada today continue to
> do so today.
That seems likely. Not to mention that {w} looks a bit more classy
than {v}. I think many people changed to {w} to make it look
more german (during one of our german influenced periods).

> Also, don't forget that the very idea of standardized spellings is a
> relatively recent phenomenon.  The English, e.g., didn't really have =
any
> conception of "standard" English until around the mid to late 18th
> century,=20
And when they finally decide, they choose the 14th century way of
spelling? Way to go... But I guess we don't have to go there again...

> and so there's no particular reason to expect the Swedes
> to be particularly any more enlightened on that matter. :)
Hey, watch that mouth, mister! The Swedes are the most enlightened
people in the whole world! The whole world I tell ya!!! :D
Sorry 'bout that, it's kinda late, and I have a cold...

Daniel Andreasson