Re: Update on me: Elliott (LONG)
| From: | Vasiliy Chernov <bc_@...> |
|---|
| Date: | Friday, September 28, 2001, 18:13 |
|---|
On Fri, 28 Sep 2001 11:30:34 +0200, Christophe Grandsire
<christophe.grandsire@...> wrote:
> What I'm wondering is why the indicative
>is periphrastic while the subjunctive is synthetic? wouldn't it be more
natural
>to be the contrary?
This seems to have some natlang precedents. IIRC, in the history of
Persian, simple present was restricted to various non-indicative usages,
being substituted by structurally more complex forms.
Basilius