Re: Grimm's Law
From: | Elliott Lash <al260@...> |
Date: | Saturday, April 13, 2002, 17:44 |
ARG!
I misread what you had said. I assumed that you meant "Grimm's Law from
Indo-European to Proto-Germanic" which Grimm's Law usually refers to. You meant
the 1st-(2nd?)-Germanic Sound Shift, oops....there I can't really help you.
Elliott Lash
Elliott Lash <AL260@...> writes:
> Christopher B Wright <faceloran@...> writes:
>
>>Okay, Grimm's Law says that these sound changes took place from
>>Proto-Germanic to Old High German:
>>p_0 > f
>>t_0 > d
>>k_0 > h
>>b_0 > p
>>d_0 > t
>>g_0 > kh
>>
>>What distinction besides voice did Grimm have for these consonant pairs?
>>That is, how did p_0 differ from b_0?
>>
>>The all-too-curious
>>Chris Wright
>
>
>Hmm, this doesn't look right.
>What I've seen for Grimm's law is:
>
>/p/ > /f/
>/t/ > /T/
>/k/ > /x/
>/b/ > /p/
>/d/ > /t/
>/g/ > /k/
>/b_h/ > /b/
>/d_h/ > /d/
>/g_h/ > /g/
>
>/b_h/, /d_h/, and /g_h/ are all aspirated. And, /t/ etc are self explanatory.
>
>Elliott Lash
>