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Re: Grimm's Law

From:Elliott Lash <al260@...>
Date:Saturday, April 13, 2002, 17:44
ARG!

I misread what you had said. I assumed that you meant "Grimm's Law from
Indo-European to Proto-Germanic" which Grimm's Law usually refers to. You meant
the 1st-(2nd?)-Germanic Sound Shift, oops....there I can't really help you.

Elliott Lash

 Elliott Lash <AL260@...> writes:

> Christopher B Wright <faceloran@...> writes: > >>Okay, Grimm's Law says that these sound changes took place from >>Proto-Germanic to Old High German: >>p_0 > f >>t_0 > d >>k_0 > h >>b_0 > p >>d_0 > t >>g_0 > kh >> >>What distinction besides voice did Grimm have for these consonant pairs? >>That is, how did p_0 differ from b_0? >> >>The all-too-curious >>Chris Wright > > >Hmm, this doesn't look right. >What I've seen for Grimm's law is: > >/p/ > /f/ >/t/ > /T/ >/k/ > /x/ >/b/ > /p/ >/d/ > /t/ >/g/ > /k/ >/b_h/ > /b/ >/d_h/ > /d/ >/g_h/ > /g/ > >/b_h/, /d_h/, and /g_h/ are all aspirated. And, /t/ etc are self explanatory. > >Elliott Lash >