Re: Part 2 Why my con langs SUCK!!!
From: | <jcowan@...> |
Date: | Friday, January 23, 2004, 13:32 |
Roger Mills scripsit:
> Which is exactly what written English does. I've suggested in that past
> that the _underlying_ phonology of _all_ Engl. dialects (the standard-ish
> one, at any rate) does have /r/ in all the positions where it is written.
I think you are right, but there are difficulties. What about ARSE, for
example? The universal North American pronunciation is [&:s]; does this have
underlying /r/ or not? Surely you don't want to claim that BASS, the fish,
is underlyingly /bars/ or /b&rs/ (OE "baers").
> Intervocalic and final-prevocalic /r/ are almost always retained.
> Pre-consonantal /r/ is the problem:
Final /r/ mostly patterns like pre-consonantal /r/, but what are we to
do with "intrusive r" in non-rhotic dialects, where unhistorical r's
appear in external sandhi by analogy to the historically lost ones?
--
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may come to the Shire, it will not seem jcowan@reutershealth.com
the same; for I shall not be the same. http://www.reutershealth.com
I am wounded with knife, sting, and tooth, http://www.ccil.org/~cowan
and a long burden. Where shall I find rest?" --Frodo
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