Re: THEORY: more questions
| From: | Nik Taylor <yonjuuni@...> |
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| Date: | Wednesday, November 26, 2003, 9:18 |
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"Mark J. Reed" wrote:
> In fact, I don't really consider it an indirect object at all if it *is*
> marked with a preposition; in that case, it is simply the object of
> the preposition. This is mostly a personal quirk of mine, though,
> and not the way English grammarians tend to analyse things. :)
That's the way I was taught it in English class, actually.
Subj verb IO DO
He gave me the book
Subj verb DO Prep Obj of Preposition
He gave the book to me
However, I always thought it seemed odd to distinguish those two
myself. :-)
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