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Re: "write him" was Re: More questions

From:Tristan McLeay <zsau@...>
Date:Saturday, November 29, 2003, 1:53
On Fri, 28 Nov 2003, Costentin Cornomorus wrote:

> --- Stephen Mulraney <ataltanie@...> > scrievit: > > > I've always wondered why folk in the US choose > > to use the plural form of "folk" :) > > Cos there's more than one here?
When I was younger, which isn't so long ago, 'folk' was a mass noun of rare occurence and it would not have been unreasonable to mark it as 'archaic' in a dictionary. But the important thing in that sentence is that it's (was) a mass noun. You wouldn't ask someone to put a dozen sugars in your cup of coffee; no more should you have talked of 'folks'. Of course, American influence has changed this and while it isn't that common here, I wouldn't think, I can certainly accept it as pluralisable (or maybe that's because the only people who use it any more are American, I'm not sure). Anyway, in Robert Jung's message which I received straight after yours, that use of `folks' would be better replaced by `peoples'. -- Tristan