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Re: Language "laws"?

From:Ray Brown <ray.brown@...>
Date:Wednesday, October 13, 2004, 6:17
On Tuesday, October 12, 2004, at 09:41 , Andreas Johansson wrote:

> Quoting Ray Brown <ray.brown@...>: > >> I can think of languages that have /s/ but no other fricatives; but I >> cannot think of any with just /T/. However, I don't see why at some stage >> a lonely [s] could not have changed to [T] (maybe a monarch or ruler had >> a >> lisp, and courtiers/followers/sycophants copied him/her and then it >> became >> a mark of 'polite speech' and so eventually spread to all layers of >> society) - in fact I would not be unduly surprised if a language were >> found with /T/ as its only fricative. > > Is there a reason for /s/ being the typical choice of a lone fric?
The only thing I can think of is that /s/ has greater stridency than other fricative. The sound is distinctive enough to have its own name: a sibilant.
> I can't think > of any single-fric language where the only fric is anything else than /s/ > .
There are some, e.g. Hawaian. ============================================================ On Tuesday, October 12, 2004, at 04:53 , Roger Mills wrote: [snip]
> IIRC you or someone else mentioned Burmese, which has [T] reflecting *s; > it > may also have [s] from some other source, but I don't know.
It was me. Yes, I know very little about Burmese; but example with /T/ do seem to correspond with /s/ in related languages. 3 = Mandarin: -san; Thai: /san; Tibetan: sum; Burmese: \Toun
> Apparently [T] is an acceptable pronunciation of /s/ in Acehnese, and > characterizes at least one dialect thereof.
It doesn't surprise me. [snip]
> Hawaiian has the sole fricative /h/, which is the merger of the same two > earlier sounds, *f and *s.
There is certainly a tendency for [s] to become [h]. It happened to prevocalic and intervocalic /s/ in proto-Greek and in the Brittonic languages as well Persian in similar positions. In French /s/ between a vowel & consonant became /h/ before disappearing; in many Spanish dialects postvocalic /s/ is pronounced [h], and the soft mutation of /s/ in the Gaelic languages is /s/ (spelled _sh_) etc. In Umbrian we find in one inscription "trif sif kumiaf" for Latin 'tres sues grauidas' (three pregnant sows) where final /s/ has become /f/. To me /T/ is much closer to /s/ than /f/ is. Ray =============================================== http://home.freeuk.com/ray.brown ray.brown@freeuk.com =============================================== Anything is possible in the fabulous Celtic twilight, which is not so much a twilight of the gods as of the reason." [JRRT, "English and Welsh" ]