Re: OT: Diacricital marks [Re: Question about "do"]
|From:||Thomas R. Wier <trwier@...>|
|Date:||Tuesday, July 29, 2003, 23:30|
Quoting John Cowan <jcowan@...>:
> Mark J. Reed scripsit:
> > > Well, no. We're talking about writing here, and the Romance languages
> > > were already pretty differentiated before anybody thought to write them
> > > down.
> > That seems odd to me, since Latin already had a written form long before
> > the differentiation? Or did people simply not equate writing and speech?
> For a long time literate people spoke their local vernacular and wrote
> Latin as well as they could. Only in very special cases did they attempt
> to write the vernacular as well.
As well as they could, indeed. Gregory of Tours makes a special
digression to excuse his poor command of Latin. This was no
exaggeration: the guy has, like, four nominative-case forms
for four separate arguments sometimes.
Thomas Wier "I find it useful to meet my subjects personally,
Dept. of Linguistics because our secret police don't get it right
University of Chicago half the time." -- octogenarian Sheikh Zayed of
1010 E. 59th Street Abu Dhabi, to a French reporter.
Chicago, IL 60637